This question is being asked because we see in the Bible where Jesus was baptized by John, Now by us knowing that John's baptism was one of repentance, why did Jesus have too go that route??????

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Brother West how have you been. I see you are still blessed by God and as usual you have great topics and as usual topics that no one wants to tackle. You know me as the layman of the group I will humblely provide what I feel in my heart my humble response to this.

I feel it was all God's Plan and He had to do this. I mean if He Who was/is without sin could be baptized and show the world for remissions (forgiveness) of sin and to be filled with the Holy Spirit then who are we that are full of sin, not to do this to show we are grafted to Him in this way and show the world. In Matt 3:17, And lo a voice from heaven, saying, Tis is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. I feel God is please with us when we follow His Son in baptism and grafted to Him. Just my humble layman feeling Brother West and I hope you will clearify this for me. Thank you my Brother in Christ and May God Bless you always.
In the Torah, a Priest had to cleanse himself, and be 33 yrs old to enter into his preistly duty. That is why Jesus said," So that all righteousness can be fulfilled."
Because Jesus modeled it. He was baptized by John in the river Jordan in order to fulfill all righteousness. (Matt 3:13-15) If it was righteousness thing for Him to do, then how much more is it vital for sinners?

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