What Was With the Name of "Adam?"
Doesn’t it seem that God showed no respect to an Adam who rejected the God-given name of “Adam” in Genesis 2:23 for “Man” and likewise denied the female the name of “Eve”, calling her “Woman” instead, yet in Genesis 3:9 even God still called him “Adam,” and in like disapproval of the term “Woman” for the female, called not out to her at all? That given this, Adam failed in his authority (bestowed according to a garden assignment only) to rightly name (even as a test from God to first prove obedience) the later proven more righteous female?
Keeping in mind the Hebrew, that the chosen use of “Man” by Adam in the instance of Genesis 2:23 (376 and not 120, Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance) is one who is “a champion” and a “mighty” man of “high degree,” yet it was a God of foreknowledge who still called him “Adam” (120), as in a man made to be ashamed (from 119), and of “low degree” and a “hypocrite.”
And likewise, according to the Hebrew, that “Woman” (despite however it is used in the garden) is always defined as “a champion” and a “mighty” woman of “high degree” and also, it was a God of foreknowledge (in Genesis 3:20) who even compelled a stubborn Adam to finally call and acknowledge her as “Eve” (as in “life-giver”) and the “mother of all living” (as in “alive” and based upon a primary word meaning literally or figuratively, “to revive, to keep, recover, repair and restore”). And that “mother of all living” was not a title respectively also earned in a fallen world by an Adam who yet would physically be father to all living, confirming the use and application of this (in addition to the Hebrew) in the spiritual and not the physical realm.
And does the whole of this also confirm, that even God had regard for the confession of Eve (then still known by a rebellious Adam as “Woman” only) in Genesis 3:13 as he is not a God who rewards the evil?
And if God had regard for, as evidenced in name and title as reward, the confession of a fallen Eve, then does that not also speak to the true deception of the garden not only as designed by the enemy but regarding as well, and even more so, a present yet complacent and silent Adam who knew even from the mouth of God that the fruit could in fact be touched but only not eaten?
Where did a now proven righteous Eve get the idea that the fruit could be neither touched or eaten, and that even despite the expressed will of God in Genesis 2:15 for the man to “dress” and “keep” the garden? How do you dress and keep ripened, falling and eventually rotting fruit, if you cannot also touch it? How could this be true unless in fact the lie came from a jealous Adam who now in order to maintain the same lie before an unsuspecting Eve, could not fulfill the will of God in keeping all of the trees of the garden?
And if Adam elected to remain silent during what he believed to be the impending death of Eve, and yet she ate the fruit and before his eyes lived, then what did God really mean in Genesis 3:17 when he chastised the man for hearkening unto his wife? Was God not referring to the fact that an Adam who suspected the immediate demise of Eve, in fact only responded to what was the still “living” voice of Eve, a still living voice which confirmed that he too would be safe to eat of the fruit as even he desired all along? That it was in fact, according to the mind of a doubting and jealous Adam who would prefer to reject a wife already regarded in name and title (by the foreknowledge of God) as righteous, and yet he was not, a win/win situation? Either he would lose “Woman” of whom he had no demonstrated regard for anyway or in the very least he would know that he could safely also eat of the fruit and live?
And that as we know, even as given in Revelation 12:11, that we are to overcome by the blood of the Lamb and by the word of our testimonies, and yet it was Eve alone who gave a confession held in regard by God and yet Adam in truth only lodged accusation.
Further, that the only thing that really mattered in the garden was a demonstrated show of righteousness, a choice made for God and not for either man (as in mankind) or for the enemy, (despite whatever had been the sin of the garden) and that ultimately confession alone is what would prove the faulty mind of a human being (who could never be perfect, as only God alone is) as righteous even before God.
I could go on in a host of other areas, but I will stop here. Yet I ask the question, not to label blame upon one gender, we have already done enough of that, but to exalt the simple truth of the garden according to the wisdom and fully revealed knowledge of God as I believe we actually do have it in the word. It is my belief that this is a very rich word and we forfeit much learning to the benefit of lives by way of arrogance and pride. What are your thoughts?
Keeping in mind the Hebrew, that the chosen use of “Man” by Adam in the instance of Genesis 2:23 (376 and not 120, Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance) is one who is “a champion” and a “mighty” man of “high degree,” yet it was a God of foreknowledge who still called him “Adam” (120), as in a man made to be ashamed (from 119), and of “low degree” and a “hypocrite.”
And likewise, according to the Hebrew, that “Woman” (despite however it is used in the garden) is always defined as “a champion” and a “mighty” woman of “high degree” and also, it was a God of foreknowledge (in Genesis 3:20) who even compelled a stubborn Adam to finally call and acknowledge her as “Eve” (as in “life-giver”) and the “mother of all living” (as in “alive” and based upon a primary word meaning literally or figuratively, “to revive, to keep, recover, repair and restore”). And that “mother of all living” was not a title respectively also earned in a fallen world by an Adam who yet would physically be father to all living, confirming the use and application of this (in addition to the Hebrew) in the spiritual and not the physical realm.
And does the whole of this also confirm, that even God had regard for the confession of Eve (then still known by a rebellious Adam as “Woman” only) in Genesis 3:13 as he is not a God who rewards the evil?
And if God had regard for, as evidenced in name and title as reward, the confession of a fallen Eve, then does that not also speak to the true deception of the garden not only as designed by the enemy but regarding as well, and even more so, a present yet complacent and silent Adam who knew even from the mouth of God that the fruit could in fact be touched but only not eaten?
Where did a now proven righteous Eve get the idea that the fruit could be neither touched or eaten, and that even despite the expressed will of God in Genesis 2:15 for the man to “dress” and “keep” the garden? How do you dress and keep ripened, falling and eventually rotting fruit, if you cannot also touch it? How could this be true unless in fact the lie came from a jealous Adam who now in order to maintain the same lie before an unsuspecting Eve, could not fulfill the will of God in keeping all of the trees of the garden?
And if Adam elected to remain silent during what he believed to be the impending death of Eve, and yet she ate the fruit and before his eyes lived, then what did God really mean in Genesis 3:17 when he chastised the man for hearkening unto his wife? Was God not referring to the fact that an Adam who suspected the immediate demise of Eve, in fact only responded to what was the still “living” voice of Eve, a still living voice which confirmed that he too would be safe to eat of the fruit as even he desired all along? That it was in fact, according to the mind of a doubting and jealous Adam who would prefer to reject a wife already regarded in name and title (by the foreknowledge of God) as righteous, and yet he was not, a win/win situation? Either he would lose “Woman” of whom he had no demonstrated regard for anyway or in the very least he would know that he could safely also eat of the fruit and live?
And that as we know, even as given in Revelation 12:11, that we are to overcome by the blood of the Lamb and by the word of our testimonies, and yet it was Eve alone who gave a confession held in regard by God and yet Adam in truth only lodged accusation.
Further, that the only thing that really mattered in the garden was a demonstrated show of righteousness, a choice made for God and not for either man (as in mankind) or for the enemy, (despite whatever had been the sin of the garden) and that ultimately confession alone is what would prove the faulty mind of a human being (who could never be perfect, as only God alone is) as righteous even before God.
I could go on in a host of other areas, but I will stop here. Yet I ask the question, not to label blame upon one gender, we have already done enough of that, but to exalt the simple truth of the garden according to the wisdom and fully revealed knowledge of God as I believe we actually do have it in the word. It is my belief that this is a very rich word and we forfeit much learning to the benefit of lives by way of arrogance and pride. What are your thoughts?
© 2024 Created by Raliegh Jones Jr..
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