Is God Now a Fool?
Though I would like to be done, the Lord led me to realize that in previous garden discussions I neglected to make reference to Genesis 3:14 which states:
“And the LORD God said unto the serpent, Because thou hast done this, thou art cursed above all cattle, and above every beast of the field; upon thy belly shalt thou go, and dust shalt thou eat all the days of thy life.”
The question is, when God says, “Because thou hast done this,” what specifically is he referring to? The preceding verse (Genesis 3:13) says:
“And the LORD God said unto the woman, what is this that thou hast done? And the woman said, The serpent beguiled me, and I did eat.”
It is my assertion that God validates the truth of the female’s confession in Genesis 3:13 (and therefore true initial lack of intent to sin in Genesis 3:1-6) by saying to the serpent, “Because thou hast done this” in Genesis 3:14. That is, God proves to believe the female was tricked into this sin just as she confessed (and was subsequently proven honored in alignment with the will of God in Genesis 3:20).
But what do you think? Did the female speak the truth in Genesis 3:13 and God believed her? Or did she lie in Genesis 3:13 and make God into a fool because he proves to believe her by cursing the serpent in the very next verse saying “Because thou hast done this” (and even allowing her the honor to be called “Eve” (life-giver) and “mother of all living” in Genesis 3:20)? Or if you don’t believe God was speaking in Genesis 3:14 about the confession of the female in Genesis 3:13, what then in reference to the serpent was he speaking about saying, “Because thou hast done this?” What specifically did the serpent otherwise do?
Keep in mind Genesis 3:15 when God says:
“And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.”
Genesis 3:14 and 3:15 are written as one sentence (one complete thought/action of God) separated only by a colon (and even positioned as a direct response of God to the words of the female in Genesis 3:13). So we know whatever was the justification of God (a justification determined by the free-will and dominion of humans causing God to either destroy, save, punish, or honor) to punish the serpent in Genesis 3:14, and to even make a difference between his “seed” and her “seed” in Genesis 3:15, had nothing directly to do with Adam. In action, this is solely between the serpent and the female, otherwise Genesis 3:15 would have been inclusive of Adam yet it is not (though we know both sinned).
What do you think?
“And the LORD God said unto the serpent, Because thou hast done this, thou art cursed above all cattle, and above every beast of the field; upon thy belly shalt thou go, and dust shalt thou eat all the days of thy life.”
The question is, when God says, “Because thou hast done this,” what specifically is he referring to? The preceding verse (Genesis 3:13) says:
“And the LORD God said unto the woman, what is this that thou hast done? And the woman said, The serpent beguiled me, and I did eat.”
It is my assertion that God validates the truth of the female’s confession in Genesis 3:13 (and therefore true initial lack of intent to sin in Genesis 3:1-6) by saying to the serpent, “Because thou hast done this” in Genesis 3:14. That is, God proves to believe the female was tricked into this sin just as she confessed (and was subsequently proven honored in alignment with the will of God in Genesis 3:20).
But what do you think? Did the female speak the truth in Genesis 3:13 and God believed her? Or did she lie in Genesis 3:13 and make God into a fool because he proves to believe her by cursing the serpent in the very next verse saying “Because thou hast done this” (and even allowing her the honor to be called “Eve” (life-giver) and “mother of all living” in Genesis 3:20)? Or if you don’t believe God was speaking in Genesis 3:14 about the confession of the female in Genesis 3:13, what then in reference to the serpent was he speaking about saying, “Because thou hast done this?” What specifically did the serpent otherwise do?
Keep in mind Genesis 3:15 when God says:
“And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.”
Genesis 3:14 and 3:15 are written as one sentence (one complete thought/action of God) separated only by a colon (and even positioned as a direct response of God to the words of the female in Genesis 3:13). So we know whatever was the justification of God (a justification determined by the free-will and dominion of humans causing God to either destroy, save, punish, or honor) to punish the serpent in Genesis 3:14, and to even make a difference between his “seed” and her “seed” in Genesis 3:15, had nothing directly to do with Adam. In action, this is solely between the serpent and the female, otherwise Genesis 3:15 would have been inclusive of Adam yet it is not (though we know both sinned).
What do you think?
Replies to This Discussion
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Permalink Reply by Hezekiah Ben Israel on
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All of the people you mentioned are devil worshippers.
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Permalink Reply by Pastor valentine on
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Grace is God's Unmerited Favour,it cannot br earned . It is freely Given BY our Lord and Saviour Jesus the Christ
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well said and amen to this
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Permalink Reply by Dawn Davidson on
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Pastor Valentine,
You say "amen," but you as yet have not addressed the same issue, though I have asked. We need to be clear about these matters. -
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Brother Watson,
Are you really that out of touch not to know this as an issue among the female, and even the female in the Church? And you have yet to address the contradiction made in God between the OT and the NT pertaining to subjugation. Speaking of your response, what is your response? This is not about us personally but the word, even God. You keep defending yourself here but you don't actually address the real issue. Regardless of what you have done or have not done (I am not here to judge you only get at the truth), given subjugation, what do you say about the contradiction in God created between the OT and NT?
Do you see a contradiction?
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Favor for what?
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Grace/Mercy... Mercy is God not giveing us what we Justly Deserve. [ eternal damnation] Grace is God giveing us what we have not earned .{ eternal salvation]]
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What is eternal salvation? Mercy for what? Why do we need mercy?
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Eternal salvation is to have been rescued or delivered from the penality of Sin. We can not go through this life or the next without mercy.. We need mercy in that our sin nature has given us the eternal death penality. { to burn in hell /lake if fire and brimestone] we need mercy in that we can not earn or buy Eternal Salvation . For salvation is a gift from God, A gift that can only come about by accepting Jesus the Christ as Lord and Saviour. My brother you can have Christ Jesus as your Lord and Saviour. Romans 10 : 9 ' if you will confess with your mouth and believe in your heart on the Lord Jesus, thou Shalt be saved. [Recieve eternal salvtion] pssss If you don't know what eternal salvation is , then you don't HAVE SALVATION pssss My goal is to have accept Christ Jesus as Lord and Saviour.
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What is sin?
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Sin is the omission, comission, thought, word,or deed that Seperates us from the LOVE of God.
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