I was in a few discussions before and have heard what they teach in many churches and what they teach in many seminary schools: "The Bible canon is 66 books and the books are sealed, with no new revelation to come." Where have we come up with this teaching? Is it biblical,traditional, or just an assumption? Is it accurate or deceiving? When asked to back such a statement up with scripture, two verses are famously quoted and interpreted, or should I say more accurately, paraphrased, misquoted and misinterpreted: 1st Corinthians 13:8-10, and Revelation 22:18-19.

Bishops, Pastors, and Teachers will readily tell you that 1st Corinthians 13:8-10 says/means that all prophecy is over and done with, that GOD is not doing prophetic utterances or any of the other Spiritual gifts anymore for that matter. This is called "Cessationism" and a false understanding of "Dispensationalism". Let us clearly see just what 1st Corinthians 13:8-10 says:

"Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away. For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away."

They take the words "when that which is perfect comes then that which is in part shall be done away" to mean that the Bible is perfect already and so therefore we need not anymore prophecy. This couldn't be any further from the truth! Healing goes right along with idea, and yet the Apostle James spoke about healing in his epistle. Apostle Paul later talked about the Prophetic gifting in the next chapter in a manner that teachers us how to recognize and utilize prophecy not only in their time, but our time as well. Apostle Paul would not contradict scripture or himself for Prophet Amos stated something that is key:

"Surely the Lord GOD will do nothing, but he revealeth his secret unto his servants the prophets. The lion hath roared, who will not fear? the Lord GOD hath spoken, who can but prophesy? " - Amos 3:7-8

Yet today, teachers are doing exactly the wrong that GOD spoke of through HIS Apostle and Prophets:

"And I raised up of your sons for prophets, and of your young men for Nazarites. Is it not even thus, O ye children of Israel? saith the LORD. But ye gave the Nazarites wine to drink; and commanded the prophets, saying, Prophesy not." - Amos 2:11-12

You would readily say "That was Old Testament, we live by the New Testament now". If that be so, then stop reading the Old Testament! JESUS was spoken of in the OT before He appeared in the NT. In fact, I dare to teach you something: The NT didn't start until the Holy Spirit Came in the Book of Acts. JESUS Himself lived and was under the Old Covenant law. The fulfillment of that covenant was the death burial and resurrection. The seal of the New Covenant is the giving of the Holy Spirit. The four Gospels that we read are the bridge to the gap of OT and NT, which is why you see four OT Prophets walking in the Gospels: Prophets Moses, Elijah, & John the Baptist, and Prophetess Anna (Gospel of Luke). We are still in the days of "The Acts of the Apostles". How is this seeing that it was a Bible book? If you take notice, the Book of Acts is the ONLY N.T. book that does not end with a proper benediction, indicating that since it is a "history of the Church" book, the book is STILL being written today by you and I. Now that we are still in the time of the Apostles, we are to still adhere to and even recognize Apostles. The Apostles spoke and said this concerning the Word of GOD:

1st Thessalonians 5:16-21- Rejoice evermore. Pray without ceasing. In every thing give thanks: for this is the will of God in Christ Jesus concerning you. "Quench not the Spirit. Despise not prophesyings". Prove all things; hold fast that which is good.

REVELATION 2:17-He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches; To him that overcometh will I give to eat of the "hidden manna", and will give him a white stone, and in the stone a new name written, which no man knoweth saving he that receiveth it.

REVELATION 10:3-4-And cried with a loud voice, as when a lion roareth: and when he had cried, seven thunders uttered their voices. And when the seven thunders had uttered their voices, I was about to write: and I heard a voice from heaven saying unto me, "Seal up those things which the seven thunders uttered, and write them not.""

REVELATION 19:11-13-And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war. His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; "and he had a name written, that no man knew, but he himself." And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.

These verse show here that there is yet still more to be revealed. If the Word of GOD is living, then it is ever growing and it is ever revealing. To put it bluntly, to say that there is no new revelation is to actually speak heresy.

You would argue that Revelation says "don't add to or take away from the Bible", however this is an inaccurate quote of the Bible verses. This is exactly what is said by Apostle John in the Book of the Revelation o JESUS Christ:

REVELATION 22:18-19- For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: and if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.

This statement is exactly what the Prophet Moses stated concerning the Torah:

Deuteronomy 12:32- What thing soever I command you, observe to do it: thou shalt not add thereto, nor diminish from it.

By the definition of our teacher today, the Prophets are guilty of "adding to the Word". Are the Prophets guilty? No, and the reason is simple: Moses was only speaking of the Torah. Just the same, Apostle John was only referring to his Book of Revelation. In fact, there are references to book in the Bible that people have not read due to destruction or man's editing:

"book of the Wars of the Lord (Num. 21: 14)
book of Jasher (Josh. 10: 13; 2 Sam. 1: 18)
book of the acts of Solomon (1 Kgs. 11: 41)
book of Samuel the seer (1 Chr. 29: 29)
book of Gad the seer (1 Chr. 29: 29)
book of Nathan the prophet (1 Chr. 29: 29; 2 Chr. 9: 29)
prophecy of Ahijah (2 Chr. 9: 29)
visions of Iddo the seer (2 Chr. 9: 29; 2 Chr. 12: 15; 2 Chr. 13: 22)
book of Shemaiah (2 Chr. 12: 15)
book of Jehu (2 Chr. 20: 34)
sayings of the seers (2 Chr. 33: 19)
an epistle of Paul to the Corinthians, earlier than our present 1 Corinthians (1 Cor. 5: 9)
possibly an earlier epistle to the Ephesians (Eph. 3: 3)
an epistle to the Church at Laodicea (Col. 4: 16)
The Book of Enoch, known to Apostle Jude (Jude 1: 14).

It is interesting to understand just how we came about with our present canon. Church history shows us that the Apostles and early Apostolic Fathers regarded the Book of Enoch and other writings (excluding Gospel of Judas, Gospel of Mary, and the like), however the Council of Nicea came up with a canon for the WESTERN Church. It is important to note that the Eastern Orthodox Church, our brothers that we barely speak/know of, regard such ancient writings still.

(For more information on that, I will be wring a forum on Church History, or you can look it up yourself in a Book called Church History In Plain Language by Bruce L. Shelley)

Writing of Epistles by Apostles is not a thing of the past for the Bible says in Hebrews "JESUS Christ the same yesterday, today, and forever more". This brings up a good question: What exactly is an Epistle?

An Epistle (Latin- Epistola), when employed in official state/governmental matters, was an imperial letter that stated the will of the Emperor as the law of the land. It is interesting to note that Apostles not only "prophecy" GOD's word, but have the authority to "decree a thing" (Job 22). A decree is an order made by a head of state or government and having the force of law. It does not necessarily mean "thus saith the LORD", for thats prophecy. It says "I decree this by my authority and righteousness in JESUS", and so long as it does not violate GOD's authority and rule in the Kingdom, it shall come to pass. You require evidence? Look at Paul's epistles: half of them say "I received this from the LORD", but the rest basically and LITERALLY said "This is not from the lord, BUT FROM ME". Do we pick and choose which writings say that and just omit it from the rest of what Paul said, or do we follow it as GOD's will spoken through His servant? Joseph had such authority perfectly described to him by Pharaoh in Genesis 41:38-44:

"38And Pharaoh said unto his servants, Can we find such a one as this is, a man in whom the Spirit of God is?

39And Pharaoh said unto Joseph, Forasmuch as God hath shewed thee all this, there is none so discreet and wise as thou art:

"Thou shalt be over my house, and according unto thy word shall all my people be ruled: only in the throne will I be greater than thou. And Pharaoh said unto Joseph, See, I have set thee over all the land of Egypt. And Pharaoh took off his ring from his hand, and put it upon Joseph's hand, and arrayed him in vestures of fine linen, and put a gold chain about his neck; And he made him to ride in the second chariot which he had; and they cried before him, Bow the knee: and he made him ruler over all the land of Egypt. And Pharaoh said unto Joseph, I am Pharaoh, and without thee shall no man lift up his hand or foot in all the land of Egypt."

If you do not believe such, I'm sorry, but you have just missed the point and peek of your authority in the Kingdom. THIS is what is truly called "Kingdom living" and "Apostolic".

Any and all comments are welcome........

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For starters, GOD cannot be classified by "sex", but even if HE could, it would be male. His Word is a seed, and anything that He places His Word on is the womb for it to grow in. To call GOD "feminine" would be contradicting everything the Lord told us about Himself in the Bible.
Well Trevor, God is a SPIRIT who created both masculine and feminine. A Divine, Loving, ,SPIRIT must possess or see the value in both traits for how else could Yahshua proclaim, 'I would gather you like a MOTHER hen' (Lk. 1:34)? Or, the Psalmist proclaim, 'when thy father and MOTHER forsake thee, the Lord will take you up (Ps. 27:10). I think the latter to be quite a comfort to 'motherless' children. Almighty God knows how to give both the necessary 'fatherly' and MOTHERLY comfort to each and all.

I just find that the Book of Phillip's 'Sweet Sophia' concept is food for thought. Especially since, in many parts of Italy they still refer to it with regard to the Ruach Hakodash i.e. Holy Spirit.

Also, when breaking down the original Genesis 1: 26, "Let US make man in OUR image, after our likeness' the root word of El-hohim is feminine not masculine. As so, I would examine the depth thereof that no spiritual stone be unturned.

Finally, Proverbs 8, repeatedly refers to 'wisdom,' which is a facet of God as 'SHE.'

Bottom line it just makes one question, since there was obvious tampering with regard to race and sex and the functions thereof with regard to humanity, as described in the Bible, what had Satan done with regard to misrepresenting the person of Deity on all levels? Was there tampering there also? Again, food for thought.

In the Greek, sin is feminine, but sin is not exclusive to females. We know that Yahweh is not a female. As far as wisdom is concerned, Solomon sees wisdom as the "ideal women", to have(figuratively speaking).
Hi James Pierce and Trevor, thanks for your replies. Listen, please understand that I know the Trinity consists of God the Father, Son, Holy Spirit. Make no mistake about that! My faith has always been secured in the existence of the Trinity as described in the Bible.

However, we know that there was tampering with the Bible with regard to race and the true role of women. We've discussed it in depth on another post. I was just discussing the power of 'divine' femininity. whether it is as you say, described as 'sin,' or 'wisdom', it means something in the spiritual realm.

There is a purpose for describing wisdom as 'feminine' or 'she' who was with God in the beginning even though we know the book of Corinthians states, 'Jesus is Wisdom.' (Provs. 8). I think it's important to explore that aspect for in all these things God is expressing a divine expression of His will manifested through the force of femininity.

This divine aspect of Christ teaches us to respect feminity as Christ works through it. It shows God's will was always for both masculine and feminine to work in equality in order for peace and harmony to be the mainstay.

Bottom line, I know there is a divine message Scripture is revealing concerning such matters. 'All Scripture' is worthy of acceptation.

Hi James Pierce and Trevor, thanks for your replies. Listen, please understand that I know the Trinity consists of God the Father, Son, Holy Spirit. Make no mistake about that! My faith has always been secured in the existence of the Trinity as described in the Bible.

The trinity is a different subject, but I want to add to the fact that this doctrine was not believed among the ancient Israelites. They believed Yahweh was unity. But the question is,"A unity of what?" Is it a unity of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit? Did the Israelites even know about a son of God? No, Its not about that, rather, its about the power of Yahweh.

Ancient near eastern gods were many, and there people polytheists. There was a god for everything; similar to indian hinduism. There was a god for the sky, winter, the sun, the ground, fertility, sex, etc. When the Shema(Duet 6:4) was spoken, and showing us that Yahweh was one, it was saying that YAHWEH has all power, and that HE alone is Elohim. Unity only in the sense of power.

However, we know that there was tampering with the Bible with regard to race and the true role of women. We've discussed it in depth on another post. I was just discussing the power of 'divine' femininity. whether it is as you say, described as 'sin,' or 'wisdom', it means something in the spiritual realm.

I do not think that the bible was tampered with in regards to race and the role of women, rather, it is man's failure to understand the biblical language, cultural, and historical context. Divine femininity to me seems on the side of spiritual mysticism.

There are many words in languages where it does not match up with its gender--- like the word Hamartia, which is Greek for "sin". We know that Hamartia is feminine, but is sin only exclusive to females? Of course not! Things such as these are in the word. Yes, it does mean something on the spiritual side, but a failure to understand the language, cultural, and historical aspect of scripture, wrongful interpretation is the result.

There is a purpose for describing wisdom as 'feminine' or 'she' who was with God in the beginning even though we know the book of Corinthians states, 'Jesus is Wisdom.' (Provs. 8). I think it's important to explore that aspect for in all these things God is expressing a divine expression of His will manifested through the force of femininity.

I believe I gave you the reasons why King Solomon referred to wisdom as a she. Wisdom is to be desired, and pursued much like a man desires and pursues a woman. Therefore, King Solomon called it a she. It may be the same way if it was a Queen. She would have called Wisdom a he, and explain, like Solomon, the gender attributes of this abstract thing we call wisdom.

Paul does say that Yeshua is the wisdom of Yahweh. But, what does that mean in relation to Yeshua himself. You can go back to John 1:1, where the Hebrew word Davar is used. In Greek, Logos is used. Yeshua is Yahweh's wisdom in the sense of being his exact divine expression, as stated in Hebrews 1.

Yeshua IS the actions of Yahweh, the insight of his nature--- the expression of his being, as Hebrews 1 states. This does NOT mean that Yahweh is a she, because the word ALWAYS refers to him as a HE. Yeshua is NOT a she either, but a HE, and the sane with the Holy Spirit.
True the doctrine of the Triune GOD was not fully understood, because the Son was not yet fully revealed. Would you follow behind the ways mentality and traditions of them, considering they were far behind and incomplete in their knowledge of who GOD was/is? Thats like reading and teaching strictly from outdated books in your classroom. OT thought is for learning so not to make the same mistakes, but to follow their way of worshiping the Truine GOD totally would be a grave error. Its going BACKWARD, not advancing forward how GOD designed.

The Son of GOD was very much so present as GOD, but very much so misunderstood by Israel.
James my point was NOT that the Godhead is a 'she' but the Most High's creative expression comes through what Scripture is referring to as a 'feminine' force or principle of God. This is why the 'feminine' language is used for both good and evil.

Also, please know God created feminity. He created the Woman. He expresses himself through masculinity and femininity. This is why the original blessing was upon 'both' male and female (Gen. 1:26).

In the spiritual realm, a literal 'masculine' and 'feminine' force of God was/is utilized with regard to the creation of the universe and humanity. Again, the Proverbs description of 'wisdom' as a 'she' or feminine force.' Yes, on one level your definition of why 'wisdom' is called a 'she' is correct. However, as we know God's word has manifold meaning to many things. It is an unsearchable, depth of knowledge and meaning. Just look at the book called "The Bible code."

Anyway, since this is the case, 'wisdom' is a feminine force, principle' formation and expression of God. In other words, this is another meaning of the 'feminine' expression of Divinity. Even the Bible refers to the Earth as 'her' i.e. 'feminine' force God utilized in His creation (Rev. 12:16).

Now, listen and understand, yes on the surface It would seem to be 'mysticism' but in actuality, I know in this truth is the answer to the whole 'goddess' concept. I think that's where the confusion came in. I think this is the place to go to counter the 'goddess' concept. Many women are now embracing this as the true force of God.

The eruption of the 'goddess' concept has exploded in this last hour. How do we intelligently through Scripture counter the evidence they put forth? They have re-erected the whole 'Queeen of Heaven," Tammuz, the golden calf i.e. Hathor etc. feminine deities even though Scripture tells us it is in reality, demon worship ( Jer. 7:18; 44:17-25; Ezek. 8:14; Ex. 32:4-35;2 Chr. 11:15; Lev. 17:7; Deut. 32:17; Ps. 106:37; etc.).

As you corectly pointed out, many nations of antiquity were polytheistic. They worshipped many 'gods and goddesses.' Even today they continue to worship 'feminine' deities. Just look at the Indians, as well as the people of India who continue to worship along these lines. I've seen documentaries on their idol worship. A man-made deity of stone, wood and bricks. It's more proof that the Bible is correct! Such 'idol worship' existed and many nations bowwed down to 'wood, and stones' and called it god (Deut. 29:17; etc.).

Yet, as we see from the Bible, people like, the Indians are correct when they refer to the Earth as "Mother' a 'Feminine' force (Rev. 12:16). They mistakenly worship the 'creation' instead of the Creator. The Bible's referencing the 'feminine' of Deity is the answer to explaining the mix up.

Yes, the answer to the whole 'feminine of God' concept is found in the word of God. The Bible says, 'be ready to give a defense' for all aspects of life even, this 'goddess' argument put forth by many (Phil. 1:7, 17). I know that 'defense' is found in the 'feminine' principles and expression of God's word. That is all I am saying. Can you better comprehend it now?
I would disagree with you on certain parts:

-The idea of the Bible being tampered with in regards to a woman's role is off completely. You are better off saying that "they taught it wrong" and messed up in giving sound doctrine, rather that saying the Bible was tampered with in such a manner.

-All scripture is worthy of acceptation, but not alteration or private interpretation. The heresy of pulling women out of their GOD-given position is not a justifiable reason for dancing on the boarder of the heresy of spiritual mysticism.
No, no dear, I'm not "dancing on the border of heresy" at all. I was searching Scripture to give a 'defense' to the whole 'goddess' argument. I basically was saying, that the nations who speak upon the 'feminine' of deity was mistakenly confusing God's divine word concerning the feminine principles.

When I say, feminine principles, I mean the 'earth' is called 'her' and such groups as the Indians who refer to the earth as 'Mother Earth' are confusing the 'feminine force or principle' of God that created the Earth as a nurturer, with God, being a 'goddess.'

In other words, just because 'wisdom' is referred to as 'she', it doesn't equate to God being the 'Goddess' as those who are into goddess worship proclaim.

Still, it is important to investigate Scripture to find out what these things mean. Ergo, the Earth is described in the word of God as 'her' or a 'feminine' power principle unleashed by God (Rev. 12:16).

I think those nations who went after 'goddess' worship as James Pierce pointed out were deceived by Satan into worshipping a 'goddess' i.e. 'Queen of Heaven, Tammuz, Hathor i.e. 'golden calf' etc.

We know the enemy is a deceiver. He twists the words or facts. He abuses an element of truth to bring about his ill-will. What I am saying is that that 'element of truth' so abused was the 'feminine principles' of God that created the Earth.

But then again, these are the deep things of God that must be spirtually discerned by the mature believer.

As for the 'they taught things wrong' versus 'they tampered with the word of God' well, that's more or less a semantic argument on 'your' part.

Romans 16:1 says, "Phoebe was a servant" versus the true emeaning of the word which hould have been, "Phoebe was a pastor, minister."

You say, that's 'taught things wrong,' whereas I say, 'they tampered with the word of God."

Oh well, to each his own.

Anyway, in all these things I'm basically saying God is the ALL. God's word can counter any doctrine put out there and I believe discussing the 'feminine' principles' of God's creation is indeed, the answer to counter the 'goddess' concept.

That's not 'bordering on heresy' rather, that's seeking out the truth of God's word in order to set the captive free.
Quite true on most of your statements, however, the Holy Ghost was the one that impregnated Mary the mother of JESUS. Also, in regards to the "wisdom" reference, Apostle Paul declared that JESUS is the wisdom of GOD (1st Corinthians 1:24, 30).

Are you indicating tampering with the presentation of the Word of GOD? I misunderstood that last statement....

I would not use the RCC word "impregnated". It makes it sound more pagan than actual fact. King Solomon called wisdom a she because we are to desire it like we desire a woman to love.
So what word would you use to describe the conception of JESUS, because regardless of how it may be "technically stated" she was pregnant, and therefore impregnated?


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