appear to be ---because its a bad translation of latin or which ever test used the vulgate which ever---
elohim means to speak---god would speak to the people in various was thouse elohim ---he speaks with equence from all places even the babe or baal ass can speak when elohim comes upon it or him ---
deus takes any form to speak even a fool can speak the words of god and not even realize it..
when people write in another mans tongue the gods of their master invoke thought and ideas--
this leads to confusion--which is the main objective of the odscurer--
I have heard that Elohim (plural of El) represents all of the Gods Israel could ever need in One God.
The heathen nations had a god for weather and a god for war and a god for fertility and a god for crops, etc...
But the LORD their God was 'all' and 'any' God they could ever need wrapped up in their One God.
Then there's the aspect of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost - thus Elohim (plural of El)
Elohim is plural because there are 2 in the Godhead, although the Word is the one who dilivered the message by the hand of the angel..
The Word was with God(later became known as the Father), and the Word was God(Who later became known as Jesus, Yeshua), and the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and created the World and everything in it..
Jesus Christ is God Almighty. Psalms 100:3 says, "know ye the Lord He is God." And in John 20:28, Thomas answered Jesus and said, "My Lord and my God." There are not three distinct persons in the Godhead as it has been taught for many hundred years. There is one and that one is Jesus. Lets see what the bible says, and what it says is what we all must accept, if we are to obtain that one and only plan of salvation.
Genesis 1:1; Colossians 1:14-17 If Jesus Christ is not God Almighty, who created the heavens and the earth, Jesus or God?
Genesis 49:10; Hebrews 7:14 If Jesus is not God Almighty, when will the Lord sprang out of the Tribe of Juda?
I Kings 22:19; Revelations 4:2 If Jesus Christ is not God Almighty, how many is setting on the throne? Psalms 45:6; Philippians 2:11.
Isaiah 7:14; St. Matthew 1:23 If Jesus Christ is not God Almighty, then who is Immanuel?
Isaiah 45:23; Philippians 2:11 If Jesus Christ is not God almighty, who, then shall we bow to? Jesus or God.
Isaiah 45:15-21; Titus 2:13 If Jesus Christ is not God almighty, then who is our savior?
Isaiah 9:6 If Jesus Christ is not God Almighty, when will Isaiah's prophecy come to pass?
Numbers 24:16-17 If Jesus Christ is not God Almighty, when will Balaam's prophecy come to pass?
St. Matthew 4:7 If Jesus Christ is not God Almighty, why, when the devil was tempting Jesus, "Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt not tempt the Lord thy God"?
Luke 1:68 If Jesus Christ is not God Almighty, when will the Lord God of Israel visit his people to redeem them?
Acts 7:59 If Jesus Christ is not God Almighty, why did Steven call God by His name and Said,"Lord Jesus"?
I John 5:20 If Jesus Christ is not God Almighty, who is the True God?
St Mark 10:18, St John 10:14 If Jesus is not God, then we must say that He is not good.
Acts 9:5 Did God lie when he told Saul that he is Jesus?
Deuteronomy 32:4, I Corinthians 10:4 If Jesus is not God, who is the Rock? Jesus Christ or God
St. John 20:28 Did Thomas lie when he said to Jesus, "My Lord and My God?
I Timothy 3:16 If Jesus is not God, when did God come in the Flesh?
I John 3:16; St. John 3:16; I Peter 3:18 If Jesus Christ is not God, when did God lay down His life?
St John 14:9 There is only one Father, Malachi 2:10, and if Jesus Christ is not God Almighty. why did he say to Philip, "When you see Me you see the Father"?
I have used only a small number of bible scripture to proclaim the fact that Jesus Christ is god Almighty and besides He, there is no other God or God like person. All bible scripture beyond Genesis 3:15 including the old and new testaments supports only one fact, and that is, God Almighty was to come and did come (manifest) in the flesh, I Tim. 3:16, to offer that perfect sacrifice. which enabled the human family, through remission and redemption, to once again have God's Law rewritten in their hearts.
For those of Us, who have been given the knowledge to understand the mystery of the Godhead, regardless of where we go in the scripture we see only one God and that one God's salvation name is Jesus Christ of Nazareth.
To further make this thing understandable let me give you some more scripture to support the Oneness of God's Throne:
Isaiah 43:10 "That ye may know and believe Me, and understand that I am He, before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me".
Deuteronomy 32;29 "See now that I, even I, am He and there is no god with me".
Ecclesiastes 4:8 "There is One (God) alone and there's not a second.
Isaiah 42:8 "I am the Lord: That is my name and my glory will I not give to another".
Isaiah 44:8 "Is there a God beside me? Yea, There is no God; I know not any".
Isaiah 46:9 "I am God and there is none like me".
I Corinthians 8:4 "There is none other God but One".
No, there is not two, not three, not four, there is only one and Jesus said, "If you don't believe that I am He, ye shalt die in your sins". Our Lord Jesus told the devil "For it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God and Him only shalt thou serve. Dear reader if you will just consider the Apostle's Doctrine, then God will give thee understanding in all things.
There were three manifestations of this ONE GOD, but many preachers do not understand them. "Howbeit, there is not in every man that knowledge". That one God was manifested as Father when he made everything. Some say that this is the first person of the Godhead, bur it is not so. When this same one god was manifested in the flesh as the Son of God, many say that this is the second person in the Godhead, but this also is not so. When he was manifested in the church as the Holy Ghost, others say that this is the third person in the Godhead, this is not so and is absolutely unscriptural, as there is no bible to support three person Godhead teachings.
If the human family could only understand the very first commandment given to Israel, they would also understand that there is only one person in the Godhead and that the Lord our God is ONE LORD. But, this wisdom and understanding is missing among the people, who have not been sent of God to preach the Gospel. Jesus said "I thank thee O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because thou hast hid these things, from the wise and prudent, and hath revealed them unto babes". Matthew 11:25.
Psalms 90:2; Revelations 1:18 If Jesus Christ is not God, then who is He that liveth, and was dead; and is alive evermore (everlasting)?
Revelation 1:8 "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty".
Dear reader, my prayer is that this information can be of some value to you, if your salvation is incomplete, or if you have not decided to make that spiritual adjustment which will give you salvation. But, one thing I hope you remember and Jesus said it: "If you don't believe that I am He, ye shalt die in your sins".
You are being very selective in your reading, ahkote.
If "Jesus" was the one God then who was his Father? Who was he talking to? The moment you take him at his own words you have not one god, but two, and that is impossible according to scripture. Now if you want to know who created this world, the Scriptures will tell you that was YHWH and YHWH alone. There are multiple scriptures that say this. Hebrews 1 has been mistranslated. In John 17:1-3 who is "Jesus" talking to there? It is his Father; who he calls the "ONLY TRUE GOD".
Now.... if we are in the same room and I say "YOU ARE THE ONLY SMART PERSON IN THIS ROOM" then what am I saying about myself? Am I included in being smart if I'm saying you are the ONLY ONE who is? Of course not. So how can Yeshua call someone else the ONLY TRUE G-D and still maintain "god status" for himself?
All your other questions have reasonable and logical answers.. like.... there is one throne above and that is heaven. But every priest and every king of Yisra'el was a MESSIAH. Yes they were. Why? Because they were all "ANNOINTED" and that is what the word means. Christianity simply ignores this fact. And that means that the THRONE of Yisra'el is an earthly throne that the messiah sits on. Yeshua's disciples wanted to be free PHYSICALLY from Roman occupation and they wanted Yeshua to sit on the throne of DAVID. THAT is what they believed was prophesied. THAT was their salvation they believed in. And THAT is why there is no contradiction for them to believe that he would occupy the throne of Yisra'el while YAH still sat on throne in heaven.
If "Jesus" is god and HE SAYS that his FATHER is HIS GOD AND OUR GOD then that = 2 gods and your own postings from Isaiah refute this conclusion thoroughly.
John 20:17 - Yeshua saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.
Not only this but Yeshua already recognized publicly that his FATHER is YHWH, the G-d of the OT.
John 8:54 - Yeshua answered, If I honour myself, my honour is nothing: it is my Father that honoureth me; of whom ye say, that he is your G-d:
Now.... explain how these men, who did not even believe he was messiah, but was a demoniac, how could they EVER say that his father is their G-d? They all knew this title "the Father". It was not introduced by "Jesus".
again... the proof....
John 8:41 - Ye do the deeds of your father. Then said they to him, We be not born of fornication; we have one Father, even G-d.
They already knew G-d as being "THE FATHER". So it was not because of Yeshua ("Jesus") that people were saying this. And who was it that was G-d in the Scriptures (Tanakh or "OT")?
Exodus 4:22 - And thou shalt say unto Pharaoh, Thus saith YHWH, Israel is my son, even my firstborn:
Jeremiah 31:9 - They shall come with weeping, and with supplications will I lead them: I will cause them to walk by the rivers of waters in a straight way, wherein they shall not stumble: for I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is my firstborn.
So now you can see that the same being Yeshua called "THE FATHER" is the same being the Israelites called "THE FATHER" who is the same being who called Yisra'el his son. So.... how could this "THE FATHER" in the OT be "Jesus" when out of his own mouth he said:
Matthew 23:9 - And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven.
if there can only be one Father and Yeshua says its not him then how can Yeshua be the same G-d in the OT, YHWH, who called himself the Father?
It is simply impossible.
YHWH is the ONE TRUE G-d. Yeshua NEVER claimed to be G-d, never claimed to be YHWH, never claimed to be the Father. Period.
new testament (hebrews?) are in pratices if not position jews...
judas was jew---
jesus was a nazarite---
jews abuse nazarites---and such abuse is now being pass upon the dark hebrew in usa--
not by the euro (as he respects the hebrew) but by the north negro who knows next to nothing about being a man in the south.
My warnings to all north men---speak for your and your region---
people like ceelooo pimp c bun b and the council of 8 ---officially ask please chi town pimps and imps leave our southern women alone...
as when we start to expose the ice berg white boy jimmies and ike and divines and korsehes and hinn and jakes...
u hate u every came down here a fake...
Deus---god warns the preacher to not blind the flock--stop the usurp and teach the young men the truth and when u dont know truth u set down---and wait on wisdom.
The most commonly used Hebrew word of God is Elohim. This is the original word in almost every Old Testament passage where we see the English word God. It is the plural form of the Hebrew word Eloah, which means God or deity.
Most scholars agree that the use of the plural word Elohim indicates God's greatness or His multiple attributes; it does not imply a plurality of persons or personalities. The Jews certainly do not see the plural form as compromising their strong monotheism. Flanders and Cresson explain that the plural usage in Hebrew has a certain function other than to indicate plurality: "The form of the word, Elohim, is plural. The Hebrews pluralized nouns to express greatness or majesty." 
The Bible itself reveals that the only way to understand the plural form of Elohim is that it expresses God's majesty and not a plurality in the Godhead, both by its insistence on one God and by its use of Elohim in situations that definitely portray only one person or personality. For example, Elohim identifies the singular manifestation of God in human form to Jacob (Genesis 32:30). The Israelites used the word elohim for the golden calf they made in the wilderness (Exodus 32:1, 4, 8, 23, 31), yet the Bible account makes it clear that there was only one golden calf (Exodus 32:4, 5, 8, 19-20, 24, 35). The Old Testament often uses elohim for singular pagan gods such as Baalberith (Judges 8:33), Chemosh (Judges 11:24), Dagon (Judges 16:23), Baalzebub (II Kings 1:2-3), and Nisroch (II Kings 19:37). The Bible even applies Elohim to Jesus Christ (Psalm 45:6; Zechariah 12:8-10; 14:5), and no one suggests there is a plurality of persons in Jesus. So the word Elohim does not indicate three persons in the Godhead. Only one being called Elohim wrestled with Jacob, only one golden calf was called elohim, and one Lord Jesus Christ is God made manifest in flesh.
"And God said, Let us make man in our image." (Genesis 1:26)
Why does this verse use a plural pronoun for God? Before we answer this, let us note that the Bible uses singular pronouns to refer to God hundreds of times. The very next verse uses the singular to show how God fulfilled verse 26: "So God created man in his own image" (Genesis 1:27). Genesis 2:7 says, "And the LORD God formed man." We must therefore reconcile the plural in 1:26 with the singular in 1:27 and 2:7. We must also look at God's image creature, which is man. Regardless of how we identify the various components that make up a man, a man definitely has one personality and will. He is one person in every way. This indicates that the Creator in whose image man was made is also one being with one personality and will.
Any interpretation of Genesis 1:26 that permits the existence of more than one person of God runs into severe difficulties. Isaiah 44:24 says the LORD created the heavens alone and created the earth by Himself. There was only one Creator according to Malachi 2:10. Furthermore, if the plural in Genesis 1:26 refers to the Son of God, how do we reconcile this with the scriptural record that the Son was not born until at least four thousand years later in Bethlehem? The Son was made of a woman (Galatians 4:4); if the Son was present in the beginning who was His mother? If the Son be a spirit being, who was His spirit mother?
Since Genesis 1:26 cannot mean two or more persons in the Godhead, what does it mean? The Jews have traditionally interpreted it to mean that God talked to the angels at creation.  This does not imply that the angels actually took part in creation but that God informed them of His plans and solicited their comments out of courtesy and respect. On at least one other occasion God talked to the angels and requested their opinions in formulating His plans (I Kings 22:19-22). We do know that the angels were present at the creation (Job 38:4-7).
Other commentators have suggested that Genesis 1:26 simply describes God as He counseled with His own will. Ephesians 1:11 supports this view, saying that God works all things "after the counsel of his own will." By analogy, this is similar to a man saying "Let's see" (let us see) even when he is planning by himself.
Others explain this passage as a majestic or literary plural. That is, in formal speaking and writing the speaker or writer often refers to himself in the plural, especially if the speaker is of royalty. Biblical examples of the majestic plural can be cited to illustrate this practice. For example, Daniel told King Nebuchadnezzar, "We will tell the interpretation thereof before the king" even though Daniel alone proceeded to give the interpretation to the king (Daniel 2:36). King Artaxerxes alternately referred to himself in the singular and the plural in his correspondence. Once, he wrote, "The letter which ye sent unto us hath been plainly read before me" (Ezra 4:18). In a letter to Ezra, Artaxerxes called himself "I" in one place (Ezra 7:13) but "we" in another place (7:24).
The use of the plural in Genesis 1:26 also may be similar to the plural Elohim in denoting the greatness and majesty of God or the multiple attributes of God. In other words, the plural pronoun simply agrees with and substitutes for the plural noun Elohim.
Still another explanation is that this passage describes God's foreknowledge of the future arrival of the Son, much like prophetic passages in the Psalms. We must realize that God does not live in time. His plans are real to Him even though they are in the future as far as we are concerned. He calls those things that are not as though they are (Romans 4:17). A day is as a thousand years to Him and a thousand years is as a day (II Peter 3:8). His plan - the Word - existed from the beginning in the mind of God (John 1:1). As far as God was concerned, the Lamb was slain before the foundation of the world (I Peter 1:19-20; Revelation 13:8). It is not surprising that God could look down the corridors of time and address a prophetic utterance to the Son. Romans 5:14 says that Adam was a figure of Him who was to come, that is, Jesus Christ. When God created Adam, He had already thought about the Incarnation and created Adam with that plan in mind.
Taking this idea a step further, Hebrews 1:1-2 says that God made the worlds by the Son. How could this be, seeing that the Son did not come into existence until a point in time much later than creation? (Hebrews 1:5-6). (See Chapter 5 - THE SON OF GOD.) To paraphrase John Miller (quoted in Chapter 5 - THE SON OF GOD), God used the Sonship to make the world. That is, He hinged everything on the future arrival of Christ. Though He did not pick up the humanity until the fulness of time was come, it was in His plan from the beginning, and He used it and acted upon it from the start. He created man in the image of the future Son of God, and He created man knowing that although man would sin the future Sonship would provide a way of salvation.
God created man in the beginning so that man would love and worship Him (Isaiah 43:7; Revelation 4:11). However, by reason of His foreknowledge God knew that man would fall into sin. This would defeat God's purpose in creating man. If this was all there was to the future, then God would have never created man. However, God had in His mind the plan for the Incarnation and the plan of salvation through the atoning death of Christ. So, even though God knew man would sin, He also knew that through the Son of God man could be restored and could fulfill God's original purpose. It is apparent, then, that when God created man he had the future arrival of the Son in mind. It is in this sense that God created the worlds through the Son or by using the Son, for without the Son, God's whole purpose in creating man would have failed.
In summary, Genesis 1:26 cannot mean a plurality in the Godhead, for that would contradict the rest of Scripture. We have offered several other harmonizing explanations. (1) The Jews and many Christians see this as a reference to the angels. Many other Christians see it as (2) a description of God counseling with His own will, (3) a majestic or literary plural, (4) a pronoun simply agreeing with the noun Elohim, or (5) a prophetic reference to the future manifestation of the Son of God.
---y is everyone trying to define a latin word in english it does not work--
go to school people---
latin is only definable by latin---thus if elohim is not found in latin it is not an origin word--its something placed in the bible---- by someone who could not translate that word to english and got as close he could in speling itl---
y is it so hard for people to see that the bible is a book of mis print as 99 percent of everything man writes even our pist..oh post...is
see how easy it is to play with words...
u have to get the most original text or at lest use latin to define the bible---or u will have no room to stand other than claiming KVJ or NIV etc...and those are already ruled to be misprint by every reader of latin (the language of Jesus and the people of that time in his region...
it does not demonstrate biblical knowledge to recant and post the bible verbatun everyone here has a bible
what is important is the bringing of practicle everyday understanding of how to use the right powers against the wrong powers...
Most scholars agree that the use of the plural word Elohim indicates God's greatness or His multiple attributes; it does not imply a plurality of persons or personalities. The Jews certainly do not see the plural form as compromising their strong monotheism. Flanders and Cresson explain that the plural usage in Hebrew has a certain function other than to indicate plurality: "The form of the word, Elohim, is plural. The Hebrews pluralized nouns to express greatness or majesty."
Can you provide the Flanders and Cresson reference, Sis. Morton?