Polygamy? Deut. 21:15 should read: "If a man *has had* (past tense) two wives,”
Deut. 21:15 should read: "If a man has had (past tense) two wives,”
But the traditional assumption that the O. T. sanctions polygamy has led to careless and perverted translation, at this point. Deut. 21:15 should read: "If a man has had (past tense) two wives,” as proved by the tenses a little further along, "have borne" and "was hated.” The Hebrew language has no proper tenses, as we understand them, so that the tense must be determined largely by other forms in the context. The verse begins, "If a man has had two wives," in the Septuagint Greek, the Latin Vulgate, the Syriac and the Arabic versions, and also in the Targum. The teaching is: If a man, whose first wife "was hated," remarries, after her death or divorcement, he may not transfer the birthright from the first wife's eldest son to the second wife's eldest son, as the second wife would naturally wish him to do.
597. We do not pretend that what is said in the Mosaic Law concerning polygamy is ideal; but it was the best that could be said to a degraded people. The same can be said of polygamy that Jesus Christ said of divorce, in Matthew 19:8, "Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts, suffered you to put away your wives," not because it was right so to do, but because there was wrong in the men.
http://www.godswordtowomen.org/lesson_74.htm
But the traditional assumption that the O. T. sanctions polygamy has led to careless and perverted translation, at this point. Deut. 21:15 should read: "If a man has had (past tense) two wives,” as proved by the tenses a little further along, "have borne" and "was hated.” The Hebrew language has no proper tenses, as we understand them, so that the tense must be determined largely by other forms in the context. The verse begins, "If a man has had two wives," in the Septuagint Greek, the Latin Vulgate, the Syriac and the Arabic versions, and also in the Targum. The teaching is: If a man, whose first wife "was hated," remarries, after her death or divorcement, he may not transfer the birthright from the first wife's eldest son to the second wife's eldest son, as the second wife would naturally wish him to do.
597. We do not pretend that what is said in the Mosaic Law concerning polygamy is ideal; but it was the best that could be said to a degraded people. The same can be said of polygamy that Jesus Christ said of divorce, in Matthew 19:8, "Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts, suffered you to put away your wives," not because it was right so to do, but because there was wrong in the men.
http://www.godswordtowomen.org/lesson_74.htm
Comment
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Comment by shemuel on April 20, 2009 at 10:14pm
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Yahshua explained Moses actions in giving the "get of divorce",as Yahshua said, it was because of the hardness of your hearts,meaning the husband was not going to forgive his wife. So instead of the husband making his wife life miserable for the rest of the marriage ,if the husband chose not to separate for a while to try to reconcile their differences, Moses gave them the "get of divorce". Not the father,nor the son,because the father hates divorce. The regulation for divorce was given at Mt. Sinai and are still in place today. SHALOM
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