Can believers of Jesus Christ assist or promote productions that showcase homosexual acceptance?

I was just browsing and came across this discussion one Minister replied that Sodom and Gomorrah was not about homosexuality, however he did not say what is was about. I am looking for some clarification. What was it about if not homosexuality?

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NO.
No what? What does no mean
I agree with Hezekiah, A BIG FAT NO!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Sodom and Gomorrah was not about homosexuality as we know it.
Jude's commentary doesn't seem to agree with you: "Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire." [Jude 7]
"Jude's commentary doesn't seem to agree with you"
Modern translation of Jude's commentary disagrees with other Biblical commentary of Sodom and Gomorrha.
Which modern translation of Jude are you referring to? What other commentary have you relied upon?
No minor or major prophet agrees with Jude nor does Jesus Christ agrees with Judes commentary.
Do you mean to say Jude's epistle contradicts the rest of scripture? Wouldn't that bring the validity of the epistle into serious question?

I don't think you've accurately depicted how Jude's description corresponds to other parts of scripture. To begin with, in few places other than Jude's letter are the sins of Sodom and Gomorrha outlined. In one instance, the prophet Ezekiel lists the incipient sins of Sodom, and then concludes that "abomination" was the culmination of their corruption.

“Behold, this was the iniquity of thy sister Sodom, pride, fulness of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her and in her daughters, neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy. And they were haughty, and committed abomination before me: therefore I took them away as I saw good." [Ezek. 16:49,50]

So according to Ezekiel, arrogance and self-sufficiency and callousness drew the Sodomites into worse sin. This expands upon the notion of Sodom's sin, but does not actually contradict Jude.
But do we know that these abominations are homosexuality? We do not.
If we only had Ezekiel's commentary, then your uncertainty might be warranted. When we take Ezekiel in concert with Jude we can safely conclude that the "abomination" of the former is the "fornication" of the latter.
But the question was about homosexuality.

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